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This is an excellent example of where we sometimes read things into a verse,
and see support for a bias we have held all along without looking hard at what
the verse actually says.
Does this verse say anything about the biological beginning of mankind?
Christ, of course, is the "last Adam," and Adam is described as the
"first man." But if we assert the first half of the verse
implies Adam was the first "biological man," we are confronted with
the second half of the verse which by no means could be construed to say that
Christ was the last biological man.
On the other hand, if we know with absolute certainty that Christ was not
the last of the human race, than the parallel between Adam and Christ is
preserved when we likewise understand that Adam was not the first of the human
race. In other words, just as Christ is not identified as the last
biological human being in this verse, neither is it mandated that Adam is the
first.
Adam was a living soul, but Adam did not bring life to those who were around
him. True life-giving spirit comes to all men from Christ who fulfilled
the mission which was intended for Adam.
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